The idea of ​​forming a Constituent Assembly in India was first presented in 1934 by Manvendra Nath Roy, the leader of the leftist movement. After this, in 1935, the Indian National Congress (INC) for the first time officially demanded the formation of a Constituent Assembly to frame the Constitution of India. In 1938, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru had announced that the Constitution of independent India would be made by a Constituent Assembly elected on the basis of adult franchise without any outside interference. The British Government accepted this demand in principle in the 'August Resolution' of 1940 and finally the Constituent Assembly was formed under the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946.

The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held in New Delhi on 9 December 1946, in which a total of 211 members participated. Muslim League had completely boycotted this meeting and demanded a separate country, hence statement B is correct. Following the French practice, Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha, the senior most member of the Assembly, was appointed temporary President of the Assembly, hence statement C is also correct. After this, on 11 December 1946, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected the permanent president and H. C. Mukherjee and V. T. Krishnamachari were elected vice presidents. Statement D is incorrect because the historic 'Objective Resolution' on 13 December 1946 was moved by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru (and not by Dr. Rajendra Prasad), which later became the basis of the present resolution.

The Constituent Assembly had formed several major and minor committees to handle various tasks related to the making of the Constitution. Chairman of the drafting committee, Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, who prepared the final draft of the Constitution (A-2). Both the Sangh Shakti Committee and the Federal Constitution Committee were chaired by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru (B-1). Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the Chairman of the Provincial Constitution Committee and the Consultative Committee on Fundamental Rights and Minorities (C-4). The Chairman of the Rules of Procedure Committee and the Steering Committee was Dr. Rajendra Prasad (D-3), the permanent Speaker of the Constituent Assembly. Hence the correct code is A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3.

It took a total of 2 years, 11 months and 18 days to formulate the Indian Constitution and during this period a total of 11 formal sessions were held, hence statement A is correct. The Constitution was signed and adopted by the present members of the Constituent Assembly on 26 November 1949, hence statement B is correct. The last meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held on 24 January 1950 in which the national anthem (Jana-Gana-Mana) and national anthem (Vande Mataram) were adopted and Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected the first President of India, hence statement C is correct. Statement D is false because the provisions on citizenship (Articles 5-9), elections (Article 324), Interim Parliament and some temporary provisions came into force immediately on 26 November 1949, while the rest of the entire Constitution came into force on 26 January 1950.

On 29 August 1947, Dr. B. R. A 7-member drafting committee was formed under the chairmanship of Ambedkar. This committee had seven members: 1. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (President), 2. N. Gopalaswami Iyengar, 3. Alladi Krishnaswami Iyer, 4. Dr. K. M. Munshi, 5. Syed Mohammad Saadullah, 6. N. Madhava Rao (who succeeded B. L. Mitter when he resigned due to health reasons), and 7. T. T. Krishnamachari (who succeeded D. P. Khaitan after his death in 1948). Pattabhi Sitaramayya was not a member of the drafting committee, rather he was the chairman of the House Committee of the Constituent Assembly. Hence option C is the correct answer.

According to the Cabinet Mission Plan 1946, out of the total 389 members of the Constituent Assembly, 296 were to be from British India and 93 from the princely states. The members of the provincial assemblies indirectly elected the members of the Constituent Assembly by single transferable vote on the basis of proportional representation system, hence statement A is correct. Statement B is false because the Constituent Assembly was not directly elected by full adult franchise, rather it was a partly elected and partly nominated body. The representatives of the princely states were nominated by the heads of the princely states, hence statement C is true. A total of 15 women members including Sarojini Naidu, Hansa Mehta, Durgabai Deshmukh, Rajkumari Amrit Kaur and Vijayalakshmi Pandit were included in the Constituent Assembly, hence statement D is also true.

The makers of the Indian Constitution adopted the best constitutional traditions of different countries according to the Indian conditions. The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), the system of the Presidential Electoral College and the nomination of members to the House of Lords are derived from the Constitution of Ireland (A-2). Fundamental rights, independence of the judiciary, principle of judicial review and impeachment of the President are taken from the United States (B-1). The Concurrent List, freedom of trade and commerce and joint sitting of both the Houses under Article 108 have been taken from Australia (C-4). The suspension of fundamental rights during an emergency is borrowed from the Weimar Constitution of Germany (D-3). Hence the correct match is A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3.

By the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976, three new words – ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’ and ‘Integrity’ – were added to the Preamble, hence statement A is correct. In the history of the Indian Constitution, the Preamble has been amended only once, hence statement B is correct. Statement C is false because the Preamble was passed and enacted by the Constituent Assembly after the rest of the Constitution had already been enacted, to ensure that it conformed to the provisions of the Constitution. Statement D is true because the premise is non-justiciable; It is neither a source of power of the legislature nor does it impose any kind of restriction on the powers of the legislature.

The Preamble of the Indian Constitution begins: "We, the People of India, resolved to constitute India a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic Republic...". Its correct sequential configuration is (Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic - SO-SO-SE-DE-RE for short). 'Sovereign' means that India is completely independent internally and externally; 'Socialist' means democratic socialism and reduction in economic inequality; 'Secular' means that the state has no state religion and all religions enjoy equal protection; 'Democratic' means sovereignty of the people; And 'Republic' means that the head of the nation (President) is elected, not hereditary. Hence option A is the correct answer.

The judiciary's view of the constitutional status of the Preamble has evolved over time. In the Berubari Sangh case (1960), the Supreme Court had said that the Preamble is the key to know the thoughts of the makers of the Constitution, but it is not a part of the Constitution, hence statement A is correct. In the historic Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Constitution Bench of 13 judges, while rejecting the Berubari judgment, clearly ruled that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution and can be amended under Article 368 without destroying the 'Basic Structure', hence statement B is correct. In the LIC of India case (1995) also, the court reaffirmed that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution, hence statement C is correct. Statement D is false because the Preamble is non-enforceable/non-justiciable, that is, its provisions cannot be legally enforced by challenging it in court.

The three elements of social, economic and political justice in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution are taken from the Russian Revolution of 1917. Social justice means equal treatment of all citizens without any discrimination on the basis of caste, religion, gender etc.; Economic justice means the end of discrimination on the basis of economic factors; And political justice means equal political rights to all. On the contrary, the noble ideals of freedom (of thought, expression, belief, religion and worship), equality of status and opportunity, and fraternity ensuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation, mentioned in the Preamble, are inspired by the historic French Revolution of 1789. Hence the correct answer is option B.

Under the Citizenship Act 1955, there are 5 ways to acquire Indian citizenship - By Birth, By Descent, By Registration, By Naturalisation, and By Incorporation of Territory, hence statement A is correct. Persons of Indian origin who seek citizenship through registration must be ordinarily resident in India for at least 7 years immediately before applying, hence statement B is correct. The conditions required for a person seeking citizenship through naturalization include adequate knowledge of one of the 8th Schedule languages ​​and good character, hence statement C is correct. Statement D is false because India has the provision of only 'Single Citizenship'. When a new territory becomes part of India, the Central Government shall, by notification in the Official Gazette, specify which persons of that territory shall be sole citizens of India.

There are three ways of losing citizenship under the Citizenship Act 1955: 1. Renunciation: When an adult citizen renounces his citizenship, all his minor children also lose their Indian citizenship (although the child can again opt for Indian citizenship when he turns 18), hence statement A is correct. 2. Termination: If an Indian citizen voluntarily accepts the citizenship of another country, his Indian citizenship automatically gets terminated by law, hence statement B is correct. 3. Deprivation: This is mandatory termination by the central government for fraudulently obtaining citizenship, disloyalty to the Constitution, contact with the enemy during wartime, or imprisonment of 2 years in any country within 5 years of registration/naturalization. Hence, statement D is false because during war, the government can deprive the citizen of citizenship for doing business with the enemy country or for doing anti-national communication.

Part II (Articles 5 to 11) of the Indian Constitution stipulates only who are to be citizens of India at the time the Constitution comes into force on 26 January 1950. It did not make permanent provisions for future acquisition or termination of citizenship. Under Article 11, the framers of the Constitution gave full and exclusive power to the Parliament to make laws on the acquisition, termination of citizenship and all other matters related to citizenship. Using this power, Parliament passed the 'Citizenship Act, 1955'. Additionally, unlike the US and Switzerland, India has a provision for 'single citizenship' so as to promote fraternity and national unity in the country. Hence option B is completely correct.

Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) scheme is a special statutory facility given to foreign nationals (who are of Indian origin). OCI cardholders enjoy lifetime visa-free travel to India and multiple-entry rights, hence statement A is correct. Statement B is false because OCI cardholders are not full citizens of India; They do not have any right under Article 16 of the Constitution to have equality of opportunity in public employment, the right to vote, the right to become a member of Parliament or the Legislature and to hold constitutional offices like President, Vice President, Supreme Court/High Court judge. By the amendment of 2015, PIO card scheme was merged into OCI card scheme, hence statement C is true. OCI cardholders cannot purchase agricultural land, farmhouse or plantation property in India without special permission from RBI, hence statement D is also true.

For the purposes of Part III, Article 12 has given a broad definition of 'State' which includes the Central Government, Parliament, State Governments, Legislatures, local bodies (Municipalities, Panchayats) and other statutory/non-statutory authorities (like LIC, ONGC, SAIL etc.), hence statement A is correct. According to the decisions of the Supreme Court, if a private institution acts as an instrument or agency of the state, then it also comes under the ambit of 'State' under Article 12, hence statement B is correct. Article 13 is the basic basis of Judicial Review, which makes it clear that any law violating the fundamental rights will be void to that extent, hence statement C is correct. Statement D is false because 'law' has been defined very broadly in Article 13(3) to include Acts of Parliament, State laws, ordinances issued by the President/Governor, orders, bye-laws, rules, regulations, notifications and customs or usages having the force of law.

Article 14 declares that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. 'Equality before law' is of British origin (Prof. A.V. Dicey's Rule of Law), which means there will be no privilege in favor of any individual and all will be equal under the law; This is a negative concept, hence statement A is correct. 'Equal protection of the laws' is derived from the US Constitution, meaning that persons in similar circumstances shall be treated equally in the application of the law; This is a positive concept, hence statement B is correct. Statement C is false because Article 14 prohibits class legislation but allows 'reasonable classification' provided the classification is based on intelligible difference. The Supreme Court held in the Minerva Mills case that the rule of law is the basic structure of the Constitution, hence statement D is true.

Article 15 is a specific fundamental right available only to Indian citizens. Article 15(1) mandates the State not to discriminate against any citizen 'solely' on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them, hence statement A is correct. Article 15(3) is an exception to this general rule which empowers the state to make special provisions (such as reservation in local bodies or free education) for the upliftment of women and children, hence statement B is correct. Article 15(4) was added by the First Constitutional Amendment 1951 (after the Champakam Dorairajan case) and Article 15(5) was added by the 93rd Amendment 2005 to make special provisions for admission to educational institutions (including private unaided) for Backward Classes, SCs and STs, hence statement C is correct. The 103rd Amendment 2019 added Article 15(6), under which the constitutional basis for maximum 10% reservation in educational institutions for EWS students from non-reserved category was created, hence statement D is also true. All four statements are true.

Article 16 provides equal opportunities to all citizens in public employment under the state and 7 specific grounds of discrimination (religion, race, caste, sex, origin, place of birth, residence) are mentioned in it, hence statement A is correct. In the historic Indra Sawhney vs. Union of India case (1992), a Constitution Bench of 9 judges upheld the constitutional validity of 27% reservation for Other Backward Classes (OBC) and propounded the historical principle of keeping the affluent section of the backward classes (creamy layer) out of the benefits of reservation, hence statement B is correct. The court also ruled that in no case should the total reservation exceed the limit of 50%, hence statement C is correct. Statement D is false because in the Indra Sawhney case, the Supreme Court had ruled that reservation would be applicable only at the level of initial appointment, reservation cannot be given in promotion (although later Parliament provided for reservation in promotion for SC/ST by adding Article 16(4A) by 77th Amendment 1995).

'Right to Equality' is provided in Articles 14 to 18 in Part III of the Indian Constitution. Article 14 guarantees equality of all persons before the law and equal protection of the laws (A-4). Article 16 ensures equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State (B-2). Article 17 completely abolishes untouchability and makes practicing it in any form a punishable offence; This is an absolute right (C-1). Article 18 prohibits the State from conferring all types of hereditary or feudal titles (such as Rai Bahadur, Sir etc.) except for military and educational distinctions (D-3). Hence, the correctly matched option is A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3.

Article 19(1) provides six democratic freedoms to Indian citizens (speech and expression, peaceful assembly without arms, forming associations or co-operative societies, free movement within India, residence in any part of India, and carrying on any profession or trade). Only citizens have this right, hence statement A is correct. Under Article 19(2), reasonable restrictions can be imposed on freedom of speech and expression only on 8 specific grounds mentioned in the Constitution (sovereignty and integrity, security, friendly relations with foreign states, public order, decency/morality, contempt of court, defamation, incitement of crime), hence statement B is correct. By the 97th Constitutional Amendment 2011, the right to form 'cooperative societies' along with association or union was given the status of fundamental right in Article 19(1)(c), hence statement C is correct. Statement D is false because the right of convention under Article 19(1)(b) is only 'peaceably and without arms', and is subject to public safety and traffic control.

Article 20 protects both citizens and non-citizens from arbitrary and excessive punishment. Article 20(1) prohibits ex-post facto law, meaning a person can be punished only under the law which was in force at the time the offense was committed. This protection applies only to criminal laws, civil or tax laws can be applied retroactively, so statement A is correct. Article 20(2) provides protection from double punishment according to which no person shall be prosecuted and punished in a court of law more than once for the same offence, hence statement B is correct. This protection is applicable only in judicial courts and not on administrative or departmental actions, hence statement C is correct. Statement D is incorrect because protection from self-incrimination (refusal to give evidence against oneself) under Article 20(3) is available exclusively in criminal proceedings and not in civil cases.

Article 21 is the most dynamic and expansive article of the Indian Constitution. 1950's A. Of. In the Gopalan case, the court literally interpreted that protection is available only against the arbitrary action of the executive and not against the law of the legislature, hence statement A is correct. In the Maneka Gandhi case (1978), the Supreme Court gave a historic decision that life under Article 21 does not mean mere 'biological existence' but 'living with human dignity' and the process of law should be just, fair and consistent with natural justice, due to which American 'due process' became a part of Indian jurisprudence, hence statement B is correct. In the Puttaswamy case (2017), a bench of 9 judges unanimously considered the right to privacy as a fundamental right under Article 21, hence statement C is correct. By the 44th Amendment of 1978, Article 359 was amended to ensure that even during an emergency, Article 20 (protection from conviction) and Article 21 (life and personal liberty) cannot be suspended, hence statement D is also correct. All four statements are true.

The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act 2002 brought about a revolutionary change in the scenario of education in India. It added a new Article 21A in Part III under which the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of 6 to 14 years in such manner as may be prescribed by law, hence statement A is correct. In Mohini Jain (1992) and Unnikrishnan (1993) cases, the Supreme Court had held that the right to life is incomplete without dignified education, which laid the foundation of this amendment, hence statement B is correct. Parliament passed the RTE Act in 2009 which became effective across the country from 1 April 2010, hence statement C is correct. Statement D is false because Article 21A is limited to 'Elementary Education' only for children aged 6 to 14 years; It does not guarantee free education for higher education, professional degrees or postgraduate courses.

Article 22 provides protection from two types of detention – punitive (for punishment after crime) and preventive (to prevent future crimes). Under general criminal law, an arrested person has the right to know the grounds of arrest and to be consulted and defended by a legal practitioner of his choice, hence statement A is correct. Under Article 22(2) it is mandatory to produce the arrested person before the Magistrate within 24 hours (minus the traveling time) and he cannot be kept for longer period without the authority of the Magistrate, hence statement B is correct. The purpose of preventive detention is not to punish the person but to prevent him from causing harm to the security of the state, public order etc., hence statement C is correct. Statement D is false because as per Article 22(4) of the Constitution, a person cannot be detained under preventive detention for a maximum period of more than 3 months without a positive report from the Advisory Board (which has members at the level of High Court judges) (although the 44th Amendment proposed to reduce it to 2 months, which has not been fully notified yet).

Articles 23 and 24 of the Constitution provide freedom to the weaker sections of the society from exploitation. Article 23(1) clearly prohibits human trafficking, slavery, forced labor and bonded labour, hence statement A is correct. This right protects citizens and non-citizens not only against state action but also against exploitation by private individuals, contractors and institutions, hence statement B is correct. Article 23(2) makes it clear that the State may impose compulsory labour/service for public purposes, provided that while doing so there is no discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste or class, hence statement C is correct. Statement D is false because the age limit for restriction on employment in factories, mines and other hazardous work under Article 24 has been set at '14 years' (not 18 years). (However, under the Child Labor Amendment Act 2016, adolescents aged 14-18 are allowed only in non-hazardous occupations).

Article 25 gives all persons (citizens and foreigners) the fundamental right to freedom of conscience and to practice their religion, practice their worship and propagate their religious ideas, hence statement A is correct. In the Stanislaus case (1977), the Supreme Court had clearly ruled that the right to propagate religion includes only the freedom to articulate the principles of one's religion; It does not include any fundamental right to convert another person by force, fraud or inducement, hence statement B is false. Article 25(1) clearly provides that this right is not absolute, but is subject to public order, morality, health and other provisions of fundamental rights, hence statement C is true. Explanation I of Article 25 states that wearing a kirpan and carrying it with you will be considered an integral part of the conduct of Sikhism, hence statement D is also true.

Article 26 gives the collective right to religious communities or any section thereof to establish institutions for religious and charitable purposes, to manage religious affairs and to own and administer movable and immovable property, hence statement A is correct. Article 27 strengthens secularism by providing that no person shall be compelled to pay any tax the income of which is spent exclusively in the propagation of any religion, hence statement B is correct. The Supreme Court has clarified that Article 27 prohibits the imposition of only 'tax' and not 'fee'; The state can levy service charges for secular administration of temples/institutions, security or special facilities for pilgrims, hence statement C is correct. According to Article 28(1), no religious education can be given in any educational institution fully funded by the state funds, hence statement D is also correct. All four statements are true.

Articles 29 and 30 protect the distinct culture and educational rights of the country's minorities. The Indian Constitution recognizes two types of minorities on religious and linguistic basis, hence statement A is correct. Article 29(1) gives the right to any section of citizens (majority or minority) to preserve its dialect, language, script or culture, hence statement B is correct. Article 30(1) provides only the right to religious and linguistic minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice (including minority institution status, curriculum management, etc.), hence statement C is correct. Statement D is false because the word 'minority' is not defined anywhere in the Indian Constitution; TMA In the Pai Foundation case (2002), the Supreme Court determined that religious and linguistic minorities would be determined state-wise by considering the total population of the state as a unit.

Various freedoms and rights are guaranteed under Part III of the Indian Constitution. Article 18 prohibits the State from conferring titles and establishes social equality (A-2). Article 19(1)(a) grants freedom of speech and expression to all citizens, which includes freedom of the press, right to know, right to remain silent, etc. (B-1). Article 26 gives religious sects the collective right to manage their religious affairs (C-4). Article 30(1) provides for the special right of religious and linguistic minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice (D-3). Hence the correct match is A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3.

The right to property was included in Part III of the original Constitution as a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(f) (freedom to acquire, hold and dispose of property) and Article 31 (not to be deprived of property except by authority of law), hence statement A is correct. It was removed from Part III through the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act 1978 by the Morarji Desai led Janata Party government, hence statement B is correct. At present it is only a legal/constitutional right under Article 300A in Chapter IV of Part XII, hence statement C is correct. Statement D is false because it is no longer a fundamental right, hence citizens cannot file a writ directly in the Supreme Court under Article 32 on its violation; For this, a civil suit can be filed in the High Court under Article 226 or under normal civil procedure.

Article 32 provides constitutional remedies for enforcement of the fundamental rights provided in Part III. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar had said that if someone asks me which Article of the Constitution is the most important without which the Constitution would be void, I would point to Article 32 – it is the soul and heart of the Constitution, hence statement A is correct. Article 32 itself being a part of Part III is a fundamental right, while Article 226 is a constitutional power given to the High Courts, hence statement B is correct. Statement C is false while statement D is true, because the High Court has wider jurisdiction than the Supreme Court in the matter of issuing writs; The Supreme Court can issue writs only on violation of fundamental rights (Part III), whereas the High Court can issue writs on violation of fundamental rights as well as any other general legal purpose or statutory rights.

There are 5 types of writs issued under Articles 32 and 226 of the Indian Constitution. Habeas Corpus, Latin for 'to have the body of', protects individual liberty against arbitrary arrest and can be issued against both public and private persons (A-2). Mandamus means 'we command', which orders a public official, corporation or lower court to perform its legal duty (B-1). Prohibition means 'to forbid', which is issued by a superior court in the course of proceedings to prevent a lower court or quasi-judicial body from exceeding its jurisdiction (C-4). Inquiry means 'by what authority or warrant', which investigates the validity of an illegal claim made by a person to public office (D-3). Hence the correct match is A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3.

Mandamus is a very important corrective judicial instrument which aims to remove administrative inaction. It directs public officials, governments or corporations to perform their mandatory legal duties, hence statement A is correct. Under Article 361 of the Constitution, the President and Governors are immune from being answerable to the court for the exercise of powers and discharge of their duties, hence mandamus cannot be issued against them, hence statement B is correct. Mandamus is issued only against public authorities and duties and not against any purely private person or private body, hence statement C is correct. Statement D is false because mandamus cannot be issued to enforce private contract obligations or when the duty is discretionary; It is issued only for statutory mandatory duties.

Article 33 empowers the Parliament to impose restrictions on the fundamental rights of the armed forces, intelligence agencies, telecommunication system personnel etc. to maintain national security and discipline in the forces, hence statement A is correct. Article 33 and Article 35 make it clear that this power lies only with the 'Parliament' and not with the State Legislatures, hence statement B is correct. Article 34 provides for restrictions on fundamental rights during the imposition of Martial Law (Extraordinary Military Rule) and empowers the Parliament to make law to indemnify the actions of any officer restoring order during military rule, hence statement C is correct. Statement D is false because the term 'martial law' is mentioned in the Indian Constitution, but no clear definition of it is given anywhere; It is a principle derived from British Common Law that applies in exceptional circumstances of war, rebellion or complete collapse of civil administration.

Part IV of the Constitution (Articles 36-51) deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy. Granville Austin called the fundamental rights and DPSP the 'conscience of the Constitution'. The objective of DPSP is to make India a welfare state by establishing social and economic democracy (whereas fundamental rights establish political democracy), hence statement A is correct. The makers of the Indian Constitution took it from the Irish Constitution of 1937, which had adopted it from Spain, hence statement B is correct. Article 37 says that although DPSPs are not legally binding by the courts, it shall be the fundamental duty of the state to apply these principles in law making, hence statement C is correct. Famous Constituent Assembly member Prof. Of. Taking a dig at their illegitimate nature, T. Shah had called them "cheques payable as per the convenience of the bank", hence statement D is also true. All four statements are completely true.

The Directive Principles are divided into three major categories based on their ideological orientation: 1. Socialist principles: which emphasize socio-economic justice and prevention of disparities (Articles 38, 39, 39A, 41, 42, 43, 43A) (A-2). 2. Gandhian principles: Which are based on Gandhiji's philosophy of village self-rule and cottage industries (Article 40-Gram Panchayat, Article 43-Cottage industries, Article 43B-Cooperative societies, Article 46-Upliftment of weaker sections, Article 47-Prohibition of intoxicants, Article 48-Prohibition of cow slaughter and animal husbandry) (B-1). 3. Liberal-intellectual principles: Those that support modernity and the rule of law (Article 44-UCC, Article 45-Early childhood care, Article 48-Agricultural modernization, Article 48A-Environment and wildlife, Article 49-National monuments) (C-3). Articles 50 and 51 are the pillars of administrative reforms and foreign policy respectively (D-4). Hence the correct match is A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4.

Article 31C was inserted by the 25th Constitutional Amendment Act 1971, hence statement A is correct. It made this revolutionary provision that if the State makes any law to implement Article 39(b) (distribution of the material resources of the community in a manner conducive to the general welfare) and Article 39(c) (operation of the economic system in such a way as not to cause harmful concentration of wealth), then it cannot be declared unconstitutional in the court on the ground of violation of Article 14 (Equality) and Article 19 (Liberty), hence Statements B and C are correct. Are. Statement D is false because the 42nd Amendment 1976 had extended the protection of Article 31C to 'all' DPSPs, but in the landmark Minerva Mills case (1980), the Supreme Court struck down this blanket extension as unconstitutional and limited the protection of Article 31C only to Articles 39(b) and 39(c).

The relationship between fundamental rights and directive principles has been the most dynamic part of the judicial evolution of the Indian Constitution. In the Champakam Dorairajan case (1951), the Supreme Court ruled that the DPSP will have to run as a subsidiary of the fundamental rights, hence statement A is correct. In the Golaknath case (1967), the court gave transcendental status to the fundamental rights and said that the Parliament cannot make any amendment to take away or reduce the fundamental rights, hence statement B is correct. In the Kesavananda Bharti case (1973), a bench of 13 judges considered the priority given to Articles 39(b) and 39(c) over Articles 14 and 19 under Article 31C as valid, hence statement C is correct. In the Minerva Mills case (1980), Justice P.N. Bhagwati and Chandrachud have historically observed that "The chariot of the Constitution runs with balance on the two wheels of Part III (Fundamental Rights) and Part IV (DPSP); to give absolute preference to any one of these is to destroy the basic structure of the Constitution", hence statement D is also true. All four statements are true.

The social scope of the Directive Principles of the Policy has been expanded through amendments from time to time. The 42nd Amendment 1976 added four new DPSPs: Article 39(f) (opportunities for healthy development of children), Article 39A (free legal aid which later became the NALSA Act 1987), Article 43A (participation of workers in the management of industrial establishments), and Article 48A (protection and promotion of environment and protection of forests and wildlife), hence statements A and B are correct. The 44th Amendment in 1978 added sub-section (2) to Article 38, directing the State to endeavor to reduce inequalities in income, status and opportunities not only among individuals but also among groups engaged in different sectors and occupations, hence statement C is correct. The 97th Amendment 2011 added Article 43B to Part IV, which promotes democratic control and professional management of co-operative societies, hence statement D is also correct. All four statements are true.

The objective of Article 44 is to create uniform law for all citizens in personal matters like marriage, divorce, inheritance, adoption and maintenance, hence statement A is correct. Goa has long had a uniform civil law under the Portuguese Civil Code of 1867, hence statement B is correct. In the year 2024, the Uttarakhand Assembly passed the 'Uniform Civil Code Bill, 2024' and became the first state in independent India to implement UCC after independence with the assent of the President, hence statement C is correct. When the 86th Amendment 2002 made education for children of 6-14 years of age a fundamental right under Article 21A, the language of Article 45 was amended so that the State should provide early childhood care and education (ECCE) to children up to 6 years of age, hence statement D is also true. All four statements are completely true.

Article 50 of the Indian Constitution directs the State to provide for separation of the Judiciary from the Executive in public services. This principle is a prerequisite for the rule of law, fair trial and judicial independence so that administrative officials do not play the role of judges in trials. Under this, the Judicial Magistrates were completely separated from the control of the Executive Magistrates (Collector/SDM) by the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 (CrPC). At the same time, Article 51 is the constitutional manifesto of India's foreign policy; It directs the state to promote international peace and security, just and respectful relations between nations, respect for international law and treaties, and settlement of international disputes through arbitration. This article is the constitutional basis of India's Panchsheel principles and non-alignment. Hence option B is the correct answer.

There are several obvious constitutional differences between the Fundamental Rights (Part III) and the DPSP (Part IV): 1. Suitability: Violation of the Fundamental Rights can be directly approached in court under Article 32 or 226, whereas a court order cannot be issued to enforce the DPSP, hence statement A is correct. 2. Nature: Fundamental rights mostly impose restrictions on the state (e.g. the state shall not discriminate), hence they are negative; Whereas DPSPs direct the state to carry out public welfare works, they are positive, hence statement B is correct. 3. Objective: Fundamental rights ensure individual liberty and political democracy, while DPSPs create socio-economic justice and equitable society, hence statement C is correct. 4. Legal effect: Under Article 13, a law inconsistent with the fundamental rights is declared void, but non-implementation of the DPSP does not render any law unconstitutional (although the DPSP is considered a basis of reasonableness while checking the constitutionality of the law), hence statement D is also correct. All four statements are true.

In 1976, the committee was formed under the chairmanship of Sardar Swaran Singh to outline the responsibilities of citizens during the Internal Emergency. The original Constitution had only rights, not duties, hence statement A is correct. Among the world's major democracies, only Japan's constitution contained duties of citizens; India adopted this idea from the former Soviet Union (USSR), hence statement B is correct. Swarn Singh Committee had recommended 8 fundamental duties, but the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976 added a total of 10 fundamental duties by adding a new Part IV-A and a new Article 51A, hence statement C is correct. Some of the recommendations of the Swarn Singh Committee were rejected by the then government, which included making regular tax payment a fundamental duty and giving Parliament the power to make laws for penalties/punishments for non-compliance of duties, hence statement D is also true. All four statements are true.

10 Fundamental Duties were added to the original Constitution by the 42nd Amendment. The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act 2002 added the 11th fundamental duty [51A(k)] to Article 51A, under which it was made the primary duty of the parents or guardian to provide opportunities for primary education to their children aged 6 to 14 years, hence statements A and B are correct. Justice J., constituted in 1999. S. Verma Committee reviewed the legal aspects of fundamental duties of citizens, hence statement C is correct. The Verma Committee explained in its report that although the Fundamental Duties in the Constitution are directly non-justiciable, the Parliament has made several punitive laws to enforce them; For example, 'Prevention of Insults to National Honor Act 1971' applies to insulting the national anthem and flag, 'Wildlife Protection Act 1972' and 'Environmental Protection Act 1986' apply to protect the environment and forests, and IPC and RPA 1951 apply to caste/religious enmity, hence statement D is also true. All four statements are true.

A total of 11 fundamental duties (sections a to k) are given in Article 51A in the following order: 1. 51A(a): Obey the Constitution and respect its ideals, institutions, national flag and national anthem (A-1). 2. 51A(b): To cherish and follow the high ideals which inspired our national movement for freedom (B-2). 3. 51A(c): Protect and preserve the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India. 4. 51A(d): To defend the country and to serve the nation when called upon. 5. 51A(e): To create a spirit of harmony and equal fraternity and to abandon practices against the dignity of women. 6. 51A(f): Understand the importance of the glorious tradition of our composite culture and preserve it. 7. 51A(g): Protect and improve the natural environment (D-4). 8. 51A(h): Develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of learning and reform (C-3). 9. 51A(i): Keep public property safe and stay away from violence. 10. 51A(j): Make continuous efforts to move towards excellence in all fields. 11. 51A(k): Provide educational opportunities to children aged 6-14 years. Hence the correct match is A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4.

The 11 fundamental duties mentioned in Article 51A of the Indian Constitution do not include 'to vote regularly' or 'to pay taxes on time'. Although the Swarn Singh Committee in 1976 had recommended making paying taxes a fundamental duty and electoral reform commissions have discussed making voting a civic responsibility, Parliament did not include these in Part IV-A of the Constitution. On the contrary, protection of sovereignty-unity-integrity [51A(c)], protection of public property [51A(i)], and preservation of the glorious tradition of composite culture [51A(f)] are fundamental duties clearly mentioned in the Constitution. Hence option C is the correct answer.

According to Article 54 of the Constitution, the President is elected by an electoral college. It includes 'only elected members' (Elected MPs) of both Houses of Parliament, hence statement A is correct. It includes 'only elected members' (Elected MLAs) of the Legislative Assemblies of all the states, hence statement B is correct. By the 70th Constitutional Amendment 1992, the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Puducherry were also made part of the electoral college, hence statement C is correct. Statement D is false because nominated members of both Houses of Parliament, all members (both elected and nominated) of State Legislative Councils (in bicameral states), and nominated members of Delhi-Puducherry cannot vote in the Presidential election. If the Chief Minister of a state is a member of the Legislative Council (Upper House), he also cannot vote in the Presidential election.

Article 55 lays down the procedure for uniformity and uniformity of election of the President. Elections are held under the proportional representation system by single transferable vote and secret ballot, hence statement A is correct. The formula for vote value of MLA is = [Total population of the state / Total elected members of the Assembly] × (1/1000), hence statement B is correct. According to the 84th Constitutional Amendment 2001, to maintain uniformity in the representation of states in the Presidential elections, the population of 1971 census has been considered as the basis till the publication of the first census data after 2026, hence statement C is correct. The Constitution ensures equality between the Union and the States; Hence, the total sum of vote values ​​of all the elected MLAs of all the States/UTs of India is exactly equal to the total vote value of all the elected MPs of the Parliament, hence statement D is also true. All four statements are true.

Impeachment of the President under Article 61 is a quasi-judicial process. The Constitution states that the only ground for impeachment is 'infringement/violation of the Constitution' (although it is not defined in the Constitution), hence statement A is correct. The charge of impeachment can be made by either house of the Parliament, hence statement B is correct. To bring a motion, signatures of at least 1/4 of the total members of the concerned House must be there and 14 days' notice is given to the President, hence statement C is correct. After this, if that House passes the resolution by a 'special majority of two-thirds (2/3) of its total membership', then the other House investigates the charges (where the President has the right to appear in person or send his representative). If the second house also passes the resolution with 2/3 majority of its total membership, then the President is relieved of his office. In this process, nominated members of both the houses of the Parliament participate, but the members of the state assemblies do not participate, hence statement D is also true. All four statements are true.

Under Article 72 of the Constitution, the President has the power of pardon in all cases where the punishment has been awarded under the law of the Union List, by a Court Martial, or death sentence. 1. Pardon: It completely cancels the punishment, conviction and all disabilities (A is correct). 2. Commutation: It changes the nature of punishment from harsh to light category; Like converting death penalty into life imprisonment or rigorous imprisonment into simple imprisonment (B is correct). 3. Remission: In this the character or severity of the punishment remains the same, only the time is reduced; Like changing 5 years rigorous imprisonment to 2 years rigorous imprisonment (C is correct). 4. Respite: Reduction of the original prescribed sentence on the basis of any special human or physical condition of the convict (pregnancy, illness) (D is correct). 5. Reprieve: A temporary stay on the execution of death sentence especially for some time so that the convict can file a mercy petition. All four statements are true.

When a bill passed by both Houses of Parliament is presented to the President under Article 111, the President has three options: to give assent, withhold assent, or return it for reconsideration. 1. Absolute veto: Withholding one's assent to a bill which causes the bill to expire (this is used on private member's bills or change of government), hence statement A is correct. 2. Suspensive Veto: The President sends the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament (does not have this power on money bills). If Parliament passes it again by simple majority with or without amendments, the President is bound to give assent, hence statements B and C are correct. 3. Pocket Veto (Pocket Veto): Since the Indian Constitution does not set any fixed time limit for the President to give assent or reject it (there is no 10-day limit like the US President), the President can keep the bill pending with him indefinitely. In 1986, the then President Giani Zail Singh had used pocket veto for the first time on the 'Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill' of Rajiv Gandhi government on the basis of violation of freedom of press, hence statement D is also true. All four statements are true.

Article 123 gives the President extraordinary power to promulgate Ordinance to deal with urgent situations during the recess of Parliament. An ordinance can be issued only when at least one House of Parliament is not in session and the President is satisfied that immediate action is necessary, hence statement A is correct. The legal effect of an ordinance is the same as an Act of Parliament and no fundamental right can be taken away by it, hence statement B is correct. When Parliament reassembles, the Ordinance is laid before both the Houses and must be passed within 6 weeks of the commencement of the session; If Parliament takes no action, it automatically expires after 6 weeks (so the maximum possible duration of an ordinance is 6 months + 6 weeks), hence statement C is correct. In D.C. Wadhwa vs. State of Bihar (1987), the Supreme Court ruled that repeated re-promulgation of ordinances bypassing the democratic legislative process is an abuse of power by the executive and unconstitutional, hence statement D is also true. All four statements are true.

Article 143 empowers the President to seek advice from the Supreme Court on complex questions of law or fact. It has two sections: 1. On any question of law or fact of public importance: In this case the Supreme Court can either give its advice or refuse to give it (like the court refused to give advice in the Ayodhya reference 1993), hence option C is correct. 2. On the dispute arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, Sanad or agreement: In this second case it is constitutionally mandatory (binding) for the Supreme Court to give its opinion to the President. It is worth noting that this opinion expressed by the Supreme Court is purely 'advisory' in nature; This is not a judicial decision, so the President is not legally bound to follow this advice.

Article 63 of the Constitution provides for a Vice President of India. The qualifications for the post of Vice President include being 35 years of age and being a member of the Rajya Sabha (whereas the President is required to be a member of the Lok Sabha), hence statement A is correct. Under Article 66(1), the Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament; In this, all the elected and nominated members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha vote, hence statement B is correct. Statement C is false because State Assemblies (MLAs) or Legislative Councils have no role in the election of the Vice President. The method of election, like that of the President, is based on proportional representation system, single transferable vote and secret ballot, hence statement D is true.

According to Article 67(b), there is a specific constitutional procedure for removing the Vice President from office before his five-year term. Since the Vice President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, the resolution for his removal can be presented only in the Rajya Sabha, hence statement A is correct. No such resolution can be moved unless at least 14 days' prior notice is given to the Vice President, hence statement B is correct. In Rajya Sabha, this resolution should be passed by 'majority of all the then members' (effective majority - total seats minus vacancies), hence statement C is correct. Statement D is false because after it is passed by the Rajya Sabha, the Lok Sabha only has to 'Agree' on it, for which only 'Simple Majority' is required in the Lok Sabha and not any special majority. There is no specific ground mentioned in the Constitution for the removal of the Vice President.

The post of Vice President of India has been created on the lines of the American Vice President. He is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and he also gets salary and allowances as the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (there is no separate salary for the post of Vice President), hence statement A is correct. Since he is not a member of the House, he does not normally vote, but in case of equal votes of the party and the opposition, he can use the casting vote under Article 100 (1), hence statement B is correct. When the post of President becomes vacant, the Vice President remains the acting President for a maximum of 6 months (until a new President is elected), hence statement C is correct. Statement D is false because according to Articles 65(3) and 97, when the Vice President acts as the President, he does not discharge the functions of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (during that time the Deputy Chairman acts as the Chairman) and he receives the salary, allowances and privileges of the President and not those of the Chairman.

The major articles related to the executive under Part V of the Indian Constitution are: Article 54 provides for the electoral college of the President consisting of elected members of Parliament and Legislative Assemblies (A-2). Article 61 sets out the procedure for impeaching the President on grounds of violation of the Constitution (B-1). Article 72 provides the President with extraordinary judicial power of pardon, commutation, remission, reprieve and deferment (C-4). Article 123 gives the President the legislative power to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament (D-3). Hence the correct match is A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3.

Article 71 of the Constitution makes specific provisions for the settlement of disputes related to the election of the President and Vice-President. Only the Supreme Court has the exclusive and initial right to hear all the disputes arising out of elections, hence statement A is correct. The decision of the Supreme Court is final and binding, hence statement B is correct. Statement C is false because Article 71(2) clearly provides that if the election of a person is declared invalid or void by the Supreme Court, all official acts done by him as President or Vice-President before the date of the decision continue to be valid, they are not void. Article 71(4) was added by the 11th Constitutional Amendment in 1961, according to which the election cannot be challenged on the basis of vacancy in the electoral college for any reason (such as dissolution of a state assembly), hence statement D is true.

Under Article 70 of the Constitution, Parliament has the right to make provisions for any contingency which is not mentioned in the Constitution. Under this, Parliament passed the 'President (Discharge of Duties) Act, 1969'. According to this, if the posts of both the President and Vice President become vacant simultaneously (due to death, resignation or removal), then the Chief Justice of India (CJI) will act as the acting President. If the post of Chief Justice is also vacant or he is absent, the senior most available judge of the Supreme Court will hold the office of Acting President. In 1969, when President Dr. Zakir Hussain died and the then Vice President V.V. Giri resigned to contest the Presidential elections, the then Chief Justice Justice Mohammad Hidayatullah did the historic work as the Acting President of India from 20 July 1969 to 24 August 1969. Hence option C is the correct answer.

Under the parliamentary system of government in the Indian Constitution, the President is the de jure head of the state, while the Prime Minister is the de facto head of the government. Article 75(1) clearly provides that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President, hence statement A is correct. According to parliamentary tradition, the President appoints the leader of the majority party or largest coalition in the Lok Sabha as Prime Minister; In the event of a hung Lok Sabha, the President, at his discretion, appoints the leader of the largest party and gives him time to prove his majority, hence statement B is correct. In 1997, the Supreme Court determined that a person who is not a member of either House of Parliament can become Prime Minister/Minister for 6 months (e.g. P.V. Narasimha Rao in 1991), hence statement C is correct. The Prime Minister is the keystone of the cabinet arch; Due to his resignation or death the entire Council of Ministers automatically dissolves, hence statement D is also true. All four statements are true.

Article 74 determines the executive relations of the President and the Council of Ministers. The President exercises his executive powers only on the advice of the Council of Ministers, hence statement A is correct. By the 42nd Constitutional Amendment in 1976, Article 74 was amended and it was made mandatory that the President will act only according to the advice of the Council of Ministers, hence statement B is correct. The 44th Constitutional Amendment 1978, giving dignified security to the President, added the provision that the President can ask the Council of Ministers to reconsider his advice once; But if the Council of Ministers sends the same advice again after reconsideration, then the President is completely bound to accept it, hence statement C is correct. Statement D is false because Article 74(2) clearly provides that the constitutional bar "shall not be inquired into in any court whether Ministers gave any advice to the President, and if so, what advice."

The basic principle of parliamentary governance is collective responsibility. Article 75(3) makes it clear that the Council of Ministers will be collectively accountable to the 'Lok Sabha' (House of the People), hence statement A is correct. The principle of collective responsibility is that all ministers swim together and sink together; If a no-confidence motion against the government is passed in the Lok Sabha or the budget fails, the entire Council of Ministers has to resign, hence statement B is correct. Cabinet decisions are joint responsibility; If a minister disagrees with the cabinet decision, he cannot criticize it outside, he has to resign (Dr. B.R. Ambedkar in 1951 and C.D. Deshmukh in 1953 resigned due to disagreement), hence statement C is correct. Statement D is false because Article 75(2) clearly provides that ministers hold office 'during the pleasure of the President of India' (although the President relieves a minister only on the advice of the Prime Minister).

The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 was passed by the Parliament with the aim of prohibiting large and jumbo cabinets and discouraging political defection. By this amendment clause (1A) was added to Article 75, according to which "the total number of Ministers including the Prime Minister in the Union Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of the total membership of the Lok Sabha." Similarly, under Article 164(1A) for the States, the maximum number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the State Council of Ministers will not exceed 15% of the total membership of the Assembly (and the minimum number of Ministers in the States, including the Chief Minister, will not be less than 12, whereas for the National Capital Territory of Delhi, this limit is set at 10% under Article 239AA). Hence option C is the correct answer.

There is an important constitutional difference between the Council of Ministers and the Cabinet. The original Constitution contained only the word 'Council of Ministers' (Articles 74 and 75). By the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act 1978, the word 'Cabinet' was added for the first time in Article 352(3) while defining that the President will declare a national emergency only when the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers of Cabinet rank so advise in writing, hence statement A is correct. The Council of Ministers is a large body (which may have 60 to 70 members) which includes Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State (Independent Charge), Ministers of State and Deputy Ministers, hence statement B is correct. The Cabinet is a small, powerful internal part of the Council of Ministers which consists only of cabinet ministers (about 15-20) who hold regular meetings and decide the policies of the country, hence statement C is correct. Statement D is false because the Prime Minister presides over the meetings of the Cabinet and under Article 78 it is the duty of the Prime Minister to inform the President of the decisions regarding the administration of the Union; The judiciary has no interference in this.

The Prime Minister of India is the ex-officio chairman of many of the country's highest policy-making bodies. The ex-officio Chairman of NITI Aayog (established January 1, 2015) is the Prime Minister (A-1). The National Development Council (NDC, established 1952) is also chaired by the Prime Minister (B-4). The Inter-State Council constituted under Article 263 is chaired by the Prime Minister and has the Chief Ministers of all the states as members (C-3). In contrast, the Chairman of the Zonal Councils formed under the States Reorganization Act 1956 is not the Prime Minister, but the 'Union Home Minister' of India is the Chairman of all these Zonal Councils (D-2). Hence the correct match is A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2.

Article 76 provides for the office of Attorney General of India. He is the chief legal advisor and supreme law officer of the Central Government, hence statement A is correct. According to the Constitution, to be appointed Attorney General, a person should have all the qualifications to become a Supreme Court judge (citizen of India, 5 years HC judge or 10 years HC advocate etc.), hence statement B is correct. The Constitution has no fixed tenure or impeachment procedure for the Attorney General; He holds office during the pleasure of the President and as per tradition he resigns when the government changes, hence statement C is correct. Statement D is false because under Article 88, the Attorney General has the right to be present and speak in any House of Parliament, joint sitting or parliamentary committee, but he has no right to vote in Parliament. Additionally, he is not a full-time government servant, so he is allowed private legal practice provided he does not litigate against the government.

According to Article 79, there shall be a Parliament for the Union consisting of the President and two Houses (Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha); Even though the President is not a member of any House, he is an integral part of the Parliament because without his signature no bill can become law, hence statement A is correct. According to Article 80, Rajya Sabha can have a maximum of 250 members (238 elected from States and UTs + 12 nominated by the President), hence statement B is correct. According to Article 83(1), Rajya Sabha is a permanent body which is never dissolved; One-third of its members retire every second year, hence statement C is correct. Statement D is false because the Constitution itself has not fixed any tenure for the Rajya Sabha (the House is permanent); Under Section 154 of the Representation of the People Act 1951 (RPA 1951), Parliament has fixed the 'tenure of members' of the Rajya Sabha, not that of the House, at 6 years.

Lok Sabha is the popular and directly elected house of Parliament. By the 104th Constitutional Amendment 2019, by amending Article 334, the reservation of SC/ST was extended for 10 years (till 2030), but the nomination of 2 members of the Anglo-Indian community (Article 331) was not renewed, due to which this provision ended, hence statement A is correct. The 84th Amendment 2001 froze the total number of Lok Sabha seats allocated to the states on the basis of 1971 census till the year 2026, hence statement B is correct. After the removal of Anglo-Indian seats, the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha has reduced from 552 to 550, hence statement C is correct. Statement D is false because according to Article 83(2) in case of a national emergency, Parliament can make a law to extend the tenure of the Lok Sabha 'only for one year at a time' (not indefinitely), and this extension cannot in any case exceed 6 months after the emergency ends.

The qualifications and disqualifications of members of Parliament are clearly mentioned in the Constitution. According to Article 84, the age should be minimum 25 years for Lok Sabha and minimum 30 years for Rajya Sabha (A-1). Under Article 102, if an MP holds an office of profit in the Central/State Government, is of unsound mind or is declared insolvent, he becomes disqualified (B-2). Under the 10th Schedule, the decision of disqualification in cases of anti-defection is taken by the Presiding Officer (Speaker or Chairman) of the concerned House (C-3). As per Article 103, the final decision on other disqualifications under Article 102 is taken by the President of India on the basis of binding opinion of the Election Commission (D-4). Hence the correct match is A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4.

10th schedule was added through 52nd amendment 1985 by Rajiv Gandhi government to prevent political instability and 'Aaya Ram Gaya Ram' trend, hence statement A is correct. Initially, a split of 1/3 members was considered a valid split, but the 91st Amendment 2003 abolished the provision of this split to prevent wholesale defection, hence statement B is correct. At present, if at least two-thirds (2/3) of the members of a legislative party agree to merge with another party, then disqualification under the anti-defection law does not apply to them, hence statement C is correct. Statement D is false because in the landmark Kihoto Holohan case (1992), the Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court ruled that the Presiding Officer (Speaker/Chairman) acts as a tribunal while deciding on defection, hence his final decision is subject to 'Judicial Review' by the High Court and the Supreme Court on the grounds of mala fide, perversity or violation of natural justice.

Articles 93 to 96 deal with the offices of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the newly elected House, hence statement A is correct. According to the last proviso to Article 94, the office of the Speaker does not become vacant despite the dissolution of the Lok Sabha; He remains in office till just before the first session of the newly formed Lok Sabha, hence statement B is correct. To remove the Speaker, at least 14 days' notice is required and it must be passed by the effective majority of the Lok Sabha, hence statement C is correct. According to Article 96, when the proposal for removal of the Speaker is under consideration, he is not the presiding officer, but he has the right to speak in the House, participate in the proceedings and vote in the first instance like an ordinary member; But if votes are equal, he cannot cast casting vote, hence statement D is also true. All four statements are true.

'Pro-tempore' is a Latin word which means 'for the time being'. When a new Lok Sabha is formed after the general elections, there is no Speaker of the House. Under Article 95(1) of the Constitution, the President appoints the Pro-tem Speaker, usually one of the senior-most members of the Lok Sabha, and administers the oath. The pro tem speaker has all the powers of the regular speaker. He has two main responsibilities: 1. To administer the oath of office to the newly elected Members of Parliament (MPs) (Article 99), and 2. To conduct the process of electing a new permanent Speaker of the Lok Sabha by the House. As soon as the election of the new permanent Speaker is completed, the office of the Pro Tem Speaker automatically ceases to exist. Hence option B is completely correct.

Article 85 deals with the session, prorogation and dissolution of Parliament. There are generally three sessions in a year in India (Budget Session, Monsoon Session, Winter Session). The rule of the Constitution is that the maximum gap between two sessions cannot exceed 6 months (hence at least 2 sessions in a year are mandatory), hence statement A is correct. Adjournment only temporarily adjourns the meeting and is the right of the presiding officer, hence statement B is correct. Prorogation is done by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers which ends the entire session (it does not end the pending bills), hence statement C is correct. Dissolution occurs only in the Lok Sabha (Rajya Sabha is permanent) which is done by the President and after the end of the 5-year term, new general elections are held, hence statement D is also true. All four statements are true.

Article 108 provides for a joint sitting of both the Houses to resolve legislative impasse. If a bill passed by one House is rejected by the other House, disagrees on amendments, or is kept pending for more than 6 months, then the President can call a joint sitting, hence statement A is correct. The framers of the Constitution have not made any provision for a joint sitting for the Money Bill (in which the Lok Sabha is supreme) and the Constitution Amendment Bill of Article 368 (in which separate special majority consent of both the Houses is mandatory), hence statement B is correct. According to Article 118(4), the joint sitting is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha; In his absence the Deputy Speaker, and in his absence the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Note: The Chairman/Vice President of the Rajya Sabha never presides over a joint sitting as he is not a member of either House), hence statement C is correct. Due to the large number of members of the Lok Sabha, the vote of the Lok Sabha is generally effective in the joint meeting and it is passed by the simple majority of those present and voting, hence statement D is also correct. All four statements are true.

The daily functioning of Parliament is governed by various established rules and conventions. As per Article 100(3) the quorum is one tenth (1/10) of the total number of members including the Presiding Officer; If there is no quorum, the presiding officer adjourns the House, hence statement A is correct. Question Hour is a formal forum set out in the rules of parliamentary procedure where MPs hold the government to account; Supplementary questions can be asked on starred questions whereas written answers are given on unstarred questions, hence statement B is correct. Zero Hour is a unique contribution of India's parliamentary system which started in 1962; This process is not recorded in the rules but is an informal means, hence statement C is correct. Zero hour starts at 12 noon (as soon as the Question Hour ends) and continues till 1 pm (lunch break) in which issues of immediate importance are raised, hence statement D is also correct. All four statements are true.

Article 110 defines Money Bill (imposition of taxes, withdrawal of money from the Consolidated Fund of India, etc.). According to Article 110 (3), the decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is final if a bill is a money bill and when it is sent to the Rajya Sabha and the President, the Speaker's certificate goes with it, hence statement A is correct. According to Article 109, a Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha on the prior recommendation of the President and not in the Rajya Sabha, hence statement B is correct. The Rajya Sabha has been given only 14 days to ensure the supremacy of the Lok Sabha in financial matters; Accepting or not the suggestions given by the Rajya Sabha is entirely dependent on the will of the Lok Sabha, hence statements C and D are correct. The President is also generally bound to give his assent to the Money Bill because it was introduced with his prior permission. All four statements are true.

Constitutional provisions relating to budget ensure financial discipline. In Article 112 of the Constitution, it is called 'Annual Financial Statement' which is a statement of estimated receipts and expenditure of the government for a financial year (1 April to 31 March), hence statement A is correct. The executive cannot spend even a single rupee without legislative approval; Under Article 114, withdrawal of money from the Consolidated Fund is possible only after the Appropriation Bill is passed, hence statement B is correct. Since the process of passing the budget takes 2-3 months (till May), so that the work does not come to a halt from the new financial year (April 1), under Article 116, the Lok Sabha approves the expenditure of 2 months in advance as 'Vote on Account', hence statement C is correct. Salaries of the President, Supreme Court judges, CAG allowances, national debt etc. are expenses charged on the Consolidated Fund which are not voted on in the Parliament to maintain their autonomy, hence statement D is also true. All four statements are true.

In Indian federalism, the Rajya Sabha is the representative assembly of the interests of the states and has some exclusive powers which the Lok Sabha does not have. Article 249 gives the Rajya Sabha the special right to declare any subject of the State List as of national importance with 2/3 majority (such law remains effective for 1 year), hence statement A is correct. Under Article 312, the power to establish new All India Services (like IAS, IPS, IFS and new services like AIJS) is given to the Parliament only on the initiative of Rajya Sabha, hence statement B is correct. Since the Vice President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, the resolution for his removal can be initiated only in the Rajya Sabha (Article 67), hence statement C is correct. If the Lok Sabha is dissolved at the time of declaration of emergency, the approval of the Rajya Sabha within 1 month is sufficient to continue the emergency (until a new Lok Sabha is constituted), hence statement D is also true. All four statements are true.

Article 105 defines the privileges and immunities of both Houses of Parliament, their committees and members. Under personal privileges, an MP cannot be arrested only in civil cases during the Parliament session and 40 days before and 40 days after the session, hence statement A is correct. This protection does not apply in criminal cases, treason or preventive detention; In a criminal case, information about arrest has to be given only to the speaker, hence statement B is correct. Article 105(2) gives complete freedom of speech in the House; An MP cannot be prosecuted in court for anything said or voted on the floor of Parliament, hence statement C is correct. Under collective privileges, the House has the power to expel outsiders, hold secret meetings, publish its reports and punish any person for violating its privileges, hence statement D is also true. All four statements are true.

The Public Accounts Committee is the oldest and important financial standing committee of the Parliament. The main function of this committee established in 1921 is to see whether the money approved by the Parliament is spent on the same item and as per the rules or not, hence statement A is correct. It consists of 22 members (15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha); No minister can become its member, hence statement B is correct. Initially its Chairman was from the ruling party, but since 1967, a healthy tradition of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha appointing a senior member of the opposition as the Chairman of the PAC started (the first opposition chairman was Minoo Masani), hence statement C is correct. The PAC examines the CAG's Appropriation Accounts, Finance Accounts and reports on public undertakings; CAG provides technical assistance by attending the meetings of the committee, hence CAG is called the "friend, philosopher and guide" of the committee, hence statement D is also true. All four statements are true.

The Estimates Committee examines the expenditure and estimates included in the budget. The objective of this committee, formed on the recommendation of John Mathai in 1950, is to bring economy and efficiency in government expenditure, hence it is also called 'Continuous Economy Committee', hence statement A is correct. It has a total of 30 members and all its members are elected only from the Lok Sabha (there is no member from the Rajya Sabha), hence statements B and C are correct. Statement D is false because unlike the Public Accounts Committee, the Chairman of the Estimates Committee is compulsorily appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha from the 'ruling party' and not from the opposition party. No minister can become its member.

COPU was formed in 1964 on the recommendation of Krishna Menon Committee to ensure financial accountability of Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs), hence statement A is correct. Initially it had 15 members, which was increased to 22 (15 Lok Sabha + 7 Rajya Sabha) in 1974, hence statement B is correct. The chairman of the committee is chosen only from among the members of the Lok Sabha (a member of the Rajya Sabha cannot become its chairman), hence statement C is correct. Its function is to see whether government companies are run in accordance with sound business principles and prudent commercial practices, and it examines the CAG reports on these companies, hence statement D is also true. All four statements are true.

The Supreme Court sits at the top of the Indian integrated judiciary. It was inaugurated on 28 January 1950 and combined the powers of both the Federal Court of 1935 and the Privy Council of Britain, hence statement A is correct. In the original Constitution in 1950, there was 1 CJI and 7 Puini (other) judges, hence statement B is correct. According to Article 124(1) of the Constitution, the power to increase the number of judges has been given to the Parliament; Parliament has been increasing the strength from time to time by amending the 'Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act' (10 in 1956, 13 in 1960, 17 in 1977, 25 in 1986, 30 in 2008), hence statement C is correct. By the Amendment Act of 2019, Parliament has increased the number to 1 CJI + 33 other judges = total 34 judges, hence statement D is also true. All four statements are true.

The collegium system is a unique system developed through judicial decisions. 1. First Judge Case (1982): The Court gave primacy to the executive and held that the President is not bound to follow the advice of the CJI, hence statement A is correct. 2. Second Judge Case (1993): In the Supreme Court Advocates on Record Association case, the Court laid the foundation of collegium and said that the advice of the CJI is binding and he will give advice from the opinion of the 2 senior most judges, hence statement B is correct. 3. Third Judge Case (1998): In the Presidential context, the Court expanded the collegium according to which the collegium for appointment of judges to the Supreme Court will consist of CJI + 4 senior most judges (and CJI + 2 senior most judges for the High Court), hence statement C is correct. 4. Fourth Judge Case (2015): The 99th Constitutional Amendment and the NJAC Act passed by the Parliament were struck down by a bench of 5 judges by a majority of 4:1 holding that the independence of the judiciary is the 'fundamental structure' of the Constitution in which interference by the executive is invalid, hence statement D is also true. All four statements are true.