At the state level, under the parliamentary system of governance, dual executive is found, in which the formal and constitutional head of the state is the Governor, while the real head is the Chief Minister. In Part-6 of the Constitution, from Articles 153 to 167, provisions related to the state executive and the post of Governor are given. According to Article 154(1), the executive power of the state is vested in the Governor, which he exercises either himself or through his subordinate officers. Option A is incorrect because the Chief Minister is the actual head of the executive of the state. Option C is incorrect because the Chief Justice of the High Court is the highest judicial officer of the state and not the head of the executive. Option D is incorrect because the Chief Secretary is the highest administrative officer of the state administrative machinery.

All the statements presented are completely true from historical and constitutional point of view. Article 153 of the original Constitution provided for a separate Governor for each state, which was amended by the 7th Constitutional Amendment in 1956 to provide that the same person could be appointed Governor of two or more states. Under this amendment, A, B, C, D categories of states were abolished by repealing Part 7 and by abolishing the post of Rajpramukh in Rajasthan, Sardar Gurmukh Nihal Singh became the first Governor of the state on 1 November 1956. The role of the Governor is dual; Along with being the constitutional head of the state, he acts as a bridge between the Union and the State as the representative of the Centre. Hence option C is the correct answer.

The Indian Constitution adopts a parliamentary system of governance at both the central and state levels, where nominal (constitutional) and actual heads are separate. At the state level, the constitutional head is the Governor (A-3) and the de facto head is the Chief Minister (B-4). Similarly, at the central level, the constitutional head is the President of India (C-1) and the de facto head is the Prime Minister (D-2). Option B is incorrect as it depicts the Chief Minister as the constitutional head of the state. Options C and D give the wrong combination as they do not correctly match the difference between the constitutional and substantive powers of the President and the Governor. Hence option A (A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2) is the correct answer.

Under Article 155 of the Constitution, the Governor of a State is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. This appointment is practically made on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. In India, this system of appointment by the Center instead of direct or indirect election of the Governor is inspired by the Constitution of Canada. Option A is incorrect because Article 153 provides for the post of Governor of the States. Option B is wrong because Article 154 states that the executive power of the state is vested in the Governor. Option D is incorrect because Article 156 deals with the tenure of the Governor and his holding office during the pleasure of the President.

There was a detailed discussion in the Constituent Assembly on the election versus appointment model of the Governor. Ultimately Dr. B.R. On the basis of the arguments of Ambedkar and Jawaharlal Nehru, the system of appointed Governor based on the Canada model was accepted. If the Governor had been elected by the public, he would have considered himself having public support and would have entered into an administrative confrontation with the elected Chief Minister. Additionally, partisan elections would affect the impartiality of the Governor and impose unnecessary financial burden. In Indian federalism, a Governor appointed by the President was considered the best option for national unity and central supervision over the states. Hence, the four statements A, B, C and D presented are completely relevant and true, hence the correct option is D.

Article 157 of the Constitution clearly mentions only two qualifications for being appointed Governor - first, he must be a citizen of India (it is not mandatory to be a citizen by birth), and second, he must have completed 35 years of age. There is no provision in the Constitution for any kind of educational qualification or maximum age limit for the post of Governor. Option A is incorrect because Article 156 deals with the term of office of the Governor. Option C is incorrect because Article 158 describes the conditions for the office of Governor (such as not holding office of profit). Option D is incorrect because Article 159 deals with the oath or affirmation by the Governor. Hence the correct answer is option B.

Article 158 clearly details the service conditions for the post of Governor. Under this, the Governor cannot be a member of Parliament or Legislature and cannot hold any office of profit. Under Article 158(3A) (by 7th Amendment 1956), if there is a Governor of two or more states, proportionate salary is given by both the states as per the order of the President. At present the salary of the Governor is ₹3,50,000 per month. A very important fact is that during the tenure of the Governor, his salary is paid from the Consolidated Fund of the State, but after retirement, his pension is charged from the Consolidated Fund of India. Hence, all four statements A, B, C and D are completely true.

There is a clear sequence of articles on Governor in Part-6 of the Constitution. Article 153 provides for the post of Governor for each State (A-2). Article 155 mentions the appointment of the Governor by warrant of the President (B-1). Article 157 details the eligibility/qualifications for the post of Governor such as citizenship and minimum age of 35 years (C-4). Article 158 includes the service conditions for the post of Governor such as not holding office of profit, not being a member of Parliament/Legislature and rules of salary and allowances (D-3). Options B, C and D represent incorrect matches. Hence the correct answer is option A.

Under Article 156(2), the Governor submits his resignation by addressing it only to the President and not to the Chief Justice of the state; Hence option C is a false statement. According to Article 156(1), the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President and according to Article 156(3) his normal tenure is 5 years. But according to the proviso to Article 156(3), he will continue to hold his office even after lapse of 5 years until his successor assumes his office. Hence, option C is the correct answer as it marks the false statement.

B.P. In Singhal vs. Union of India (2010), a 5-member Constitution bench of the Supreme Court had given a historic ruling regarding the removal of the Governor (Pleasure Doctrine). The Court clarified that although the President has the right to remove the Governor, this power is not arbitrary. The Governor cannot be removed merely on the basis of change in the ruling party at the Center or difference of political ideology. There must be a solid, logical and justifiable reason for removal and the victim can challenge it in the Governor's Court. Hence, the four statements A, B, C and D presented are completely correct, hence the correct option is D.

Under Article 159 of the Constitution, the Governor takes an oath or affirmation before assuming his office. The oath of office to the Governor is administered by the Chief Justice of the High Court of the concerned state. In the absence of the Chief Justice, the oath is administered by the senior-most available judge of the High Court. It should be noted that the format of oath of the ministers and other officers of the Union is in the Third Schedule, but the specific format of the oath of the Governor itself is given in Article 159 which includes the oath of preservation, protection and defense of the Constitution and the law and the welfare of the public. Hence option C is the correct answer.

Article 361 provides special privileges and constitutional immunities to the President and the Governors. According to its clause (1), the Governor is not answerable to any court for his official actions. Under clause (2), criminal proceedings are strictly prohibited during his term of office. No warrant of arrest or imprisonment under clause (3) can be issued during his term of office. Under clause (4), a civil/civil case can be initiated for his personal acts, but for this it is mandatory to give written notice (containing name, address and details of the claim) at least 2 months in advance. Therefore, the four statements presented A, B, C and D are completely correct, hence the correct answer is option D.

Article 160 of the Constitution deals with the "discharge of the functions of the Governor in certain contingencies". According to this, the President can make such provisions as he deems appropriate for the discharge of the functions of the Governor of the State in any extenuating circumstances not provided for in this Chapter (such as sudden death, resignation or prolonged illness of the Governor). Generally, in such a situation, the Chief Justice of the High Court is given the charge of acting Governor. Option A is incorrect because pardon power is in Article 161. Option C is incorrect because the duties of the Chief Minister are in Article 167. Option D is wrong because Advocate General is in Article 165. Hence the correct answer is option B.

Under Article 166, all executive actions of the state are taken in the name of the Governor. Under Article 164, the Governor appoints the leader of the majority party in the Assembly as the Chief Minister and ministers on his recommendation. Appoints the Advocate General under Article 165 and the Election Commissioner under Article 243K. Statement D is partially wrong because under Article 316, the Governor appoints the RPSC Chairman and members, but only the President has the constitutional right to dismiss them (after the investigation report of the Supreme Court). Hence only statements A, B and C are true, hence the correct option is A.

The Advocate General of the State is appointed by the Governor under Article 165 (A-3). The State Election Commissioner for Panchayati Raj and Municipal Bodies is appointed under Article 243K/243ZA (B-4). The State Finance Commission is constituted by the Governor every 5 years under Article 243I/243Y (C-1). District Judges are appointed by the Governor under Article 233 in consultation with the High Court (D-2). Options B, C and D present inconsistent matches. Hence, the correct answer is option A (A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2).

According to Article 177 of the Constitution, every Minister and Advocate General of the State has the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of the Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council (both Houses) of the State. Apart from this, he also has the right to participate in the committee of the Legislature in which his name is given as a member. But, it is clearly written at the end of Article 177 that he will not have the right to vote in the House because he is not an elected/nominated member of the House. He gets the same privileges and immunities as the members of the legislature. Hence option A is the correct answer.

The Governor of Rajasthan is the ex-officio Chancellor of state-funded government universities and appoints Vice-Chancellors. Apart from this, he is the President of Western Region Cultural Center (Udaipur), President of Rajasthan Red Cross Society, Patron of Rajasthan Scouts and Guides, Chairman of Rajya Sainik Board and Chairman of the Integrated Fund Management Committee of Ex-Servicemen. But statement D is false because the Governor is not the Chancellor of the private universities and central universities located in the state. The Chancellor/Visitor of a central university is decided by the President and of a private university by its own Trust. Hence only statements A, B and C are true (option A).

According to the orders issued from Rajasthan Raj Bhavan on 26 August 2014, the use of the word 'His Excellency' or 'His Excellency' in official remarks, mutual conversations of dignitaries and state functions has been abolished. Under the new protocol, one is addressed as 'Honorable Governor' or 'Rajyapal Sir' in Hindi and 'Honorable Governor' in English. Also, 'Mr./Mrs./Ms.' is used before the name. Hence option B is the correct answer.

Under Article 174, the Governor has the right to convene the session, prorogue the session and dissolve the Assembly. Under Article 176, a special address is given by the Governor at the beginning of the first session after the formation of the new Assembly and the first session of every year. Statement C is false because the power to adjourn or adjourn the meeting indefinitely rests with the Speaker of the Assembly and not the Governor. The Governor prorogues the session which ends the entire session. Hence only statements A, B and D are true (option A).

The provision of nominating 1 Anglo-Indian member by the Governor in the state legislatures under Article 333 has been abolished by the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2020. (By the same amendment, the nomination of 2 Anglo-Indians by the President to the Lok Sabha under Article 331 has also been abolished). Option A is wrong because under Article 171(3), in the states with Legislative Council, nomination of 1/6 members from literature, science, art, cooperative movement and social service continues to be done by the Governor. Hence the correct answer is option B.

Under Article 174, the Governor summons, prorogues and dissolves the Assembly (A-2). Article 175 gives the Governor the right to address and send messages to the House (B-3). Under Article 176, a special address is given at the beginning of the first session and budget session after the general elections (C-4). Under Article 192, the decision on disqualification of members of the Legislative Assembly on grounds other than defection is taken by the Governor on the advice of the Election Commission (D-1). Hence, the correct matching option is A (A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1).

Under Article 200, the Governor has three options of veto and one right of reservation. He may assent (the bill becomes law), withhold assent (extreme veto), or return an ordinary bill other than a money bill for reconsideration (suspensive veto). If the Legislature again passes the bill with or without amendments, the Governor has to sign it. The President has the right of pocket veto (Article 111), but the Governor does not have the right of pocket veto to stop the bill indefinitely in the Constitution. Hence, all four given statements A, B, C and D are true (option D).

According to the second proviso to Article 200, if a Bill passed by the State Legislature impairs the constitutional status of the High Court or its powers so as to jeopardize its independent role, then the Governor is constitutionally bound to reserve that Bill for the consideration of the President. Apart from this, bills against the Directive Principles of State Policy, of national importance, or contrary to the provisions of the Constitution can also be reserved for the consideration of the President. Reservation for the subjects mentioned in options A, C and D is not binding. Hence the correct option is B.

The ordinance power of the Governor under Article 213 is a co-extensive legislative power. The Governor cannot issue ordinances at his discretion; For this, the advice and recommendation of the State Council of Ministers is mandatory. An Ordinance has the same effect as an Act of the Legislature. If it is not passed within 6 weeks (42 days) from the date of resumption of session of the Legislature, it automatically lapses. The Governor can also withdraw the ordinance at any time on the advice of the Council of Ministers. Hence, all four statements A, B, C and D are completely true (option D).

The veto power of the President is contained in Article 111 (A-2). The veto power of the Governor is described in Article 200 (B-1). The power of the President to issue ordinances is contained in Article 123 (C-4). The power of the Governor to issue ordinances is contained in Article 213 (D-3). This change of paragraphs (123 -> 213) is very easy to remember. Options B, C and D represent incorrect answers. Hence, the correct matching option is A (A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3).

DC. In Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (1987), the Supreme Court had declared the practice of the Bihar government continuously re-promulgating ordinances for years without facing the Legislature as unconstitutional. The Supreme Court termed it as "Ordinance Raj" and a betrayal of the Constitution and said that Ordinance is only for exceptional circumstances and cannot be an alternative to the legislature's right to make laws. Hence the correct option is B.

The financial powers of the Governor are the basis of the state's budget and finance system. Money Bill (Article 198/207) is introduced only on the advance recommendation of the Governor. Under Article 202, he gets the annual financial statements presented through the Finance Minister. Under Article 203(3) no demand for grant can be made without its recommendation. Under Article 267(2), the Governor has control over the State Contingency Fund and can advance funds for unexpected expenses. Hence, the four statements A, B, C and D presented are completely correct (option D).

There are three main differences between the pardon powers of the President under Article 72 and the pardon powers of the Governor under Article 161. First: The President can pardon the death sentence completely, but the Governor cannot pardon the death sentence completely; However, he can commute, suspend or remit the death penalty. Second: The President can pardon the punishment of the Court Martial, whereas the Governor does not have this power. Third: The Governor is limited only to making laws extending the executive power of the state. Hence, option D gives all the correct true statements.

Under Article 217, the judges of the High Court are appointed by the President after consultation with the Governor. Under Article 219, the Governor of the state administers the oath of office to the High Court judges. The Governor also appoints District Judges under Article 233. But statement C is incorrect because only the President has the power to remove High Court judges (if the resolution is passed by special majority in Parliament), the Governor cannot remove him. Hence only statements A, B and D are true (option A).

It is clearly written in Article 163(2) that if a question arises whether a matter falls within the discretionary power of the Governor or not, then the decision of the Governor will be final and the validity of anything done by the Governor will not be questioned on the ground whether he should have acted in his discretion or not. Hence, option C is a false statement because the validity of the discretionary decision cannot be questioned in the court on this basis. Options A, B and D are the correct provisions of Article 163 of the Constitution. Hence the correct answer is option C.

The discretionary powers of the Governor are divided into two parts: those given by the Constitution (such as Articles 200, 356) and situational discretion. The appointment of the Chief Minister in the event of a hung assembly is the most prominent example of situation-generated discretion. Apart from this, selection of a caretaker or new Chief Minister in case of sudden death of the Chief Minister, dismissal of the government that does not resign after losing majority in the Assembly and dissolution of the Assembly on the recommendation of the government in minority are the discretionary powers arising from the circumstances of the Governor. Hence, all four statements A, B, C and D are true (option D).

The discretionary powers of the Governor are divided into two parts. First: The discretion given by the Constitution - like reserving the bill for the President under Article 200 (A-2) and recommending President's rule in the state under Article 356 (B-4). Second: Situational discretion – such as selecting the Chief Minister in case of a hung assembly in the elections (C-1) and dismissing the Council of Ministers who remain in office after a no-confidence motion or losing majority (D-3). Hence, the correct combination is option A (A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3).

Under the 5th Schedule of the Constitution, the Governor of states with scheduled areas has special powers. He submits annual or requisitioned reports to the President. Under Article 244(1), he makes rules regarding the Tribal Advisory Council and decides the appointment of the Chairman. He can provide that any law of the Parliament or the State Legislature will not apply to the Scheduled Area or will apply with modification and can prohibit the transfer of land of ST members. Hence, option D gives all the true statements.

Various commissions gave important recommendations for the fair operation of the post of Governor in India. The first ARC of 1966 opposed reappointment. The Rajamannar Committee (1969) constituted by the Government of Tamil Nadu had made the extreme recommendation of abolishing the post of Governor and Article 356 for the autonomy of the states. Justice Ranjit Singh Sarkaria Commission (1988 report) said that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the state, should not be active in party politics and the Chief Minister should be consulted. Justice Madan Mohan Poonchi Commission (2010 report) had recommended impeachment by the state legislature to fix the tenure of the Governor and remove him. Hence, all four statements A, B, C and D are completely true (option D).

The first Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) was constituted in 1966 under the chairmanship of Morarji Desai (A-3). Tamil Nadu Government by Dr. P.V. Rajamannar Committee was formed in 1969 (B-4). Justice Ranjit Singh Sarkaria Commission was constituted by the Central Government in 1983 (C-1). Justice Madan Mohan Poonchi Commission was constituted in 2007 (D-2). (Order to remember: Rajamannar 1969 -> Sarkaria 1983 -> Poonchi 2007). Hence, the correct combination is option A (A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2).

The Second Centre-State Relations Commission (Poonchi Commission), constituted in 2007 under the chairmanship of Justice Madan Mohan Poonchi, had recommended in its 2010 report that governors should not be entrusted with the official responsibility of Chancellor of state universities. The Commission believed that due to this, the post of Governor gets dragged into administrative and academic controversies and its constitutional impartiality is affected. Option A is incorrect because Sarkaria Commission mainly emphasized on appointment and consultation. Hence the correct answer is option B.

Constitutional emergency is imposed in the state under Article 356. The President issues a proclamation which has to be passed by both the Houses of Parliament with a simple majority within 2 months. If approved, it is applicable for 6 months and can be extended up to a maximum of 3 years. S.R. In the Bommai case (1994), a nine-member bench clarified that the use of Article 356 should be the last resort, its malicious use is subject to judicial review and the floor test of the Assembly is the only means of majority test. Hence, all four statements A, B, C and D are true (option D).

President's rule has been imposed in Rajasthan a total of 4 times so far. The first time was from 13 March to 26 April 1967 (minimum 45 days), when the Governor was Dr. Sampurnanand (A-4). The second time was from 30 April to 21 June 1977 (53 days), when the Governor was Vedpal Tyagi (B-3). The third time was from 17 February to 5 June 1980 (109 days), when the Governor was Raghukul Tilak (C-2). The fourth time was from 15 December 1992 to 3 December 1993 (longest 353 days), when the Governor was Dr. M. Chenna Reddy (D-1). Hence, the correct combination is option A (A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1).

The fourth President's rule was in force in Rajasthan from 15 December 1992 to 3 December 1993 (total 353 days – the longest period). During this period, the Chief Minister of the state was Bhairon Singh Shekhawat and after the Babri Masjid demolition incident, the then Shekhawat government was dismissed and President's rule was imposed at the Centre. The Governor of Rajasthan at that time was Dr. M. Chenna Reddy. Option A is wrong because the first President's rule (1967) was imposed during the time of Mohanlal Sukhadia. Bhairon Singh Shekhawat was the Chief Minister during both the third (1980) and fourth (1992) terms. Hence the correct option is C.

The reasons and periods of all four President's rule in Rajasthan are historical. The first President's rule in 1967 was imposed due to unclear majority in the elections (45 days). The second and third emergencies were imposed when the Janata Party government in 1977 and the Congress government in 1980 dismissed the opposition governments of the states. The fourth President's rule of 1992–93 was the longest for 353 days, in which Dr. M. Chenna Reddy and Dhanik Lal Mandal (Governor of Haryana) were the governors. Therefore, the four statements presented A, B, C and D are completely correct (option D).

'Governor Relief Fund' was formed on 14 March 1978 during the tenure of Rajasthan Governor Sardar Jogendra Singh for public assistance during natural disasters and sudden crises in Rajasthan. Expenditures from this fund are made to provide assistance to the disaster victims as per the instructions and prescribed procedure of the Governor. Hence option B is the correct answer.

In the history of Rajasthan, there have been a total of 4 such Governors who died while in office: (1) Shri Darbara Singh (1998) - The Governor with the shortest tenure and the first to die. (2) Shri Nirmal Chand Jain (2003) – Died before the special address. (3) Shri Shailendra Kumar Singh (2009) – India's longest serving Ambassador to Pakistan before becoming Governor in 2007. (4) Smt. Prabha Rao (2010) – First woman Governor who died in office. Hence, the four given statements A, B, C and D are 100% true from historical point of view (with detailed explanation). Hence the correct option is D.

Dr. Sampurnanand was the former Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh and contributed in the construction of Sanganer open jail system in Rajasthan (A-3). Sardar Hukum Singh was the former Speaker of Lok Sabha (1962-67) and was associated with 'Spokesman' magazine (B-4). O.P. Mehra was a former Air Chief Marshal of the Indian Air Force whose autobiography is titled 'Sweet and Sour' (C-2). Raghukul Tilak was previously a member of the RPSC from 1958-60 and was the Governor who was dismissed from the post in 1981 (D-1). Hence, the correct combination is option A (A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1).

Shri Baliram Bhagat (Governor of Rajasthan from 30 June 1993 to 30 April 1998) had also held the post of Speaker of the Lok Sabha during the 5th Lok Sabha of India (in 1976-77). Option B is incorrect because Kalyan Singh was the Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh. Option C is wrong because Anshuman Singh had been a High Court judge. Option D is wrong because Madan Lal Khurana was the Chief Minister of Delhi and the first Governor of Rajasthan to resign from the post. Hence the correct answer is option A.

There have been a total of 3 women Governors in Rajasthan so far: (1) Mrs. Pratibha Devisingh Patil (2004-2007) - The first woman Governor, who resigned to contest the Presidential elections and became the first woman President of the country. (2) Smt. Prabha Rao (2009–2010) – Second woman Governor to die in office. (3) Mrs. Margaret Alva (2012–2014) – Third woman Governor to complete her full term. Hence, all the four statements A, B, C and D presented are true (option D).

Governors of other states have been given additional charge in Rajasthan. Swarup Singh (Governor of Gujarat) was given additional charge in 1991 (A-4). Dhanik Lal Mandal (Governor of Haryana) got additional charge (B-3) in 1993. Justice J.S. Verma (Chief Justice of Rajasthan High Court) became the acting Governor (C-2) in 1987 and 1989, who later became the Chief Justice of India (CJI 1997). Shivraj Patil (Governor of Punjab) held additional charge from 2010-12 (D-1). Hence, the correct combination is option A (A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1).

Sardar Gurmukh Nihal Singh was the first Governor of Rajasthan from 1 November 1956 to 15 April 1962 (about 5 years 5 months). He has been the Governor who has held the post for the longest continuous period in the history of Rajasthan and has given the maximum number of addresses/special addresses in the State Assembly (8 times). Option A is incorrect because Dr. Sampurnanand was the second Governor during whom the first President's rule was imposed. Option C is incorrect because Kalyan Singh (2014-2019) also served a full tenure of 5 years. Hence the correct answer is option B.

On 31 July 2024, Shri Haribhau Kisanrao Bagde took office as the 45th (personally 22nd) Governor of Rajasthan. He was elected MLA 6 times from Phulambri seat of Aurangabad/Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar district of Maharashtra, was a cabinet minister in Maharashtra and was elected unopposed as Speaker of the Maharashtra Legislative Assembly in 2014. The oath under Article 159 of the Constitution was administered to him by the Chief Justice of Rajasthan High Court. Therefore, the four statements presented A, B, C and D are completely correct (option D).

Sarojini Naidu (first woman Governor of India) compared the post of Governor to a bird in a golden cage (A-2). Dr. Pattabhi Sitaramayya had quipped that the Governor's job is only to provide tea and hospitality to the guests (B-1). Vijayalakshmi Pandit had said that the post of Governor has only the attraction of big salary/salary (C-4). K.M. Munshi had said that the Governor is the guardian of constitutional propriety and a link that strengthens the relationship between the Center and the State (D-3). Hence, the correct matching option is A (A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3).

All the statements presented are completely true in the context of the procedure of Rajasthan Legislative Assembly and the constitutional rights of the Governor. The petition, privileges and government assurance committees of the Assembly have a maximum of 15 members, whereas the number in the General Purpose Committee is not fixed. Under Article 174, the Governor calls, adjourns and can dissolve the session. Under Article 317, the Governor can only suspend RPSC members during investigation, but the power to remove/dismiss from the post rests only with the President (on the recommendation of the Supreme Court). Hence, the correct answer is option D (all A, B, C and D).